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Following question paper was asked IN FCI Assistant grade III examination 2022 for the recruitment of Assistant grade 3 Technical Posts. Question paper contains 120 Question from Bio (Jeev Vigyan) Subject.
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11. The placentation of composite is:
(1) Marginal (3) Axile (2) Parietal (4) Basal
12. A distinct monocot character shown by the flowers of liliaceae is:
(1) Hypogynous flower (2) Actinomorphic flower
(3) Trimerous flower (4) Bisexual flower
13. When a cell is fully turgid which one of the following is zero:
(1) Turgor Pressure (2) Wall pressure
(3) Diffusion pressure deficit (4) Osmotic pressure
14. The coleoptile in grass seedling is:
(1) Radicle (2) Plumule
(3) Cotyledon 4) Sheath around emerging leaf
15. One of these is polymorphic and digenetic:
(1) Noctiluca
(3) Plasmodium
(2) Leishmania (4) Trvpanosoma
16. One of the following is not a mammal:
(1) Anteater (3) Heloderma
(2) Echidna (4) Dolphin
17. Which of the following is not a correctly matched set:
(1) Flame cell-flatworm (2) Nematocyst-Coelenterata
(3) Segmentation-MolluSca (4) Pharyngeal gill slit-Chordata
18. Chief function of contractile vacuole is:
(1) Osmoregulation (3) Excretion
(2) Digestion (4) Respiration
19. Which one of the following sets of organs is of ectodermal origin in frog?
(1) Epidermis, mucous glands and optic vesicle
(2) Brain, aorta and thyroid gland
(3) Pharynx, spinal cord and blood cell
(4) Heart, cranial nerves and liver
20. Precocious metamorphosis can be induced in frog tadpole by treating with:
(1) Growth Hormone (GH)
(2) Adrenocortico Tropic Hormone (ACTH)
(3) Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)
(4) Thyroxine Hormone (TH)
21. Which stage of Plasmodium is infective to man:
(1) Merozoite (2) Schizont
(3) Spotozoite (4) Ookinete
22. Body cavity ofyj is called:
(1) Hydrocoel (3) Coelom
(2) Haemocoel (4) Coelenteron
23. Syncytial epidermis is found in:
(1) Ascaris (3) Flatworm
(2) Earthworm (4) None of these
24. Anal cerci are found:
(1) Only in male Ascaris (2) Only in male cockroach
(3) Only in female cockroach (4) Both in male and female cockroach
25. Inheritance of ABO blood group is an example of:
(1) Multiple allelism (2) Dominance
(3) Incomplete dominance (4) Mutation
26. Which has sweet taste, but is not a sugar:
(1) Saccharine (2) Lactose
(3) Protein (4) Starch
27. BMR is regulated by:
(1) Adrenalin (2) Thyroxine
(3) Growth hormone (4) Insulin
28. Pancreas has:
(1) Only endocrine cells
(2) Only one type of cell, the same functioning both in an exocrine and endocrine
(3) Two types of cells—exocrine and endocrine
(4) Only exocrine cells
29. In the unfertilized egg, inactivated NMD kinase is made active only:
(1) When capacitation and contact between the gametes have been established
(2) After the penetration of the sperm head —into the vicinity of the egg plasma membrane
(3) When the second polar body of the egg has been discharged
(4) When the amphlimixis is over
30. Young fruits are green but develop brilliant shade of colour towards ripening because:
(1) Amount of sugar increases in them
(2) Amount of organic acids decreases in them
(3) Chloroplasts are degraded to carotenes and xanthophylls
(4) Of ageing
31. Which of the following is true for most genes:
(1) A gene is a segment of DNA that contains the instnjctions for making a particular protein
(2) A gene is a segment of DNA that contains the instructions for making a particular RNA
(3) A gene is a region of DNA that controls a discrete hereditary characteristic of an organism
(4) All of the above
32. The “Central Dogma” of protein synthesis can be summed up as follows:
(1) DNA — transcription —* RNA —* translation
(2) DNA —* translation —* RNA —> transcription
(3) DNA —f RNA — transcription —* translation
(4) DNA —* RNA — translation —* transcription
33. Telomeres are:
(1) Knots in the center of the chromosome that seem to tie the chromatids together
(2) Starting points for DNA replication
(3) Molecules that bring new nucleotides to the replicating DNA strand
(4) Sequences of nucleotides found at ends of chromosomes
34. Islets of Langerhans are found in:
(1) Australia (2) Pancreas
(3) Ovary (4) Liver
35. Corpus callosum is found in the brain of:
(1) Frog (2) Rabbit
(3) Cockroach (4) Snake
36. The specific function of liver is:
(1) Excretion (2) Digestion
(3) Histolysis (4) Glycogenesis and glycogenolysis
37. Antidiuretjc hormone (ADH) is:
(1) Gastrin (2) Pancreozymin
(3) Testosterone (4) Vasspressin
38. Pegging down in ground nut is the process of:
(1) Elongation of style
(2) Elongation of areal roots
(3) Development of Brace roots
(4) Pressing pegs in soil to support the plant
39. ‘Pusa Naveen’ is a variety of:
(1) Bottle gourd (2) Sponge gourd
(3) Bitter gourd (4) Musk-melon
40 The family of water melon is:
(1) Cruciferae (2) Malvaceae
(3) Leguminosae (4) Cucurbitaceous
41. Which among the following conditions are favourable 41. for cyclic photophosphorylation
(1) Aerobic condition only
(2) Aerobic and low light intensity
(3) Aerobic and optimum light
(4) Anaerobic and low light intensity
42. The number of carbon atom in the acceptor compound 42. of carbon—dioxide in C3 plants is:
(1)2 (2)3
(3)4 (4)5
43. Calvin cycle occurs in:
(1) Cytoplasm (2) Peroxisome
(3) Chloroplast (4) Mitochondria
44. The number of oxygen molecules released per light quanta during light reaction is:
(1) Quantum yield (2) Quantum requirement
(3) Quantasome (4) Photosynthetic yield
45. Genetic recombination takes place during:
(1) Prophase of meiotic division—I
(2) Metaphase of meiotic division—Il
(3) Prophase of melotic division—Il
(4) Metaphase of meiotic division—I
46. In CAM plants the initial carbondioxide acceptor is:
(1) Phosphoglyceric acid
(2) Phosphoenol pyruvic acid
(3) Ribulose 1,5 biphosphate
(4) Malic acid
47. Which among the following pigment is called as accessory pigments?
(1) Carotene (2) Xanthophyll
(3) Phycobilins (4) All the above
48. C4 pathway is shown by:
(1) Sugar cane (2) Sunflower
(3) Pea (4) Rice
49. The universal hydrogen acceptor is:
(1) NADP (2) ATP
(3) CO—A (4) FMN
50. Algae and other submerged plants in water float during day time and sink at night, because:
(1) They come upto enjoy some time
(2) They lose weight at night
(3) They become byont due to accumulation of 02 as a result of photosynthesis
51. The electron microscope has been particularly useful in studying bacteria, because:
(1) Electrons can penetrate tough bacterial cell walls
(2) Bacteria are so small
(3) Bacteria move so quickly they are hard to photograph
(4) With few organelles present, bacteria are distinguished by differences in individual
macromolecules
52. Which of the following clues would tell you whether a cell is prokaryotic or eukaryotic:
(1) The presence or absence of a rigid cell wall
(2) Whether or not the cell is partitioned by internal membranes
(3) The presence or absence of ribosomes
(4) Whether or not the cell carries out cellular metabolism
53. Which pigment is water soluble?
(1) Chlorophyll (3) Anthocyanin (2) Carotene (4) Xanthophyll
54. “Kranz Anatomy” is found in:
(1) Flower (2) Seed (3) Leaves (4) Stem
55. The family in which many plants are C4 type:
(1) Malvaceae (3) Crucifereae (2) Solanaceae (4) Gramineae
56. The geometrical device that helps to find out all the possible combination of male and female gametes is called:
(1) Punnete square (3) Mendal square
(2) Bateson square (4) Morgan square
57. Necrosis, or death of tissue particularly leaf tissue, is due to the deficiency of:
(1) N, K, S
(2) N, K, Mg and Fe
(3) Mn, Zn and Mo
(4) Ca, Mg, Cu and K
58. Somaclones are obtained by:
(1) Genetic engineering (2) Tissue culture
(3) Plant breeding (4) Irradiation
59. Which one of the following is correct? The enzyme peptidyl transferase is involved in::
(1) DNA replication (3) Genomic imprinting
(2) RNA transcription (4) Protein translation
60. When a heterozygous offspring is crossed with homozygous recessive parents, it is called:
(1) Test cross (2) Reciprocal cross (3) Monohybrid cross (4) Dihybrid cross
61. The process of removing stamens from the flower during hybridization is called:
(1) Caping (3) Crossing
(2) Selfing (4) Emasculation
62. Which of the followings is absent in the xylem of gymnosperms?
(1) Trachiecjs 3) Fibers (2) Parenchyma (4) Vessels
63. Which of the following is called living fossil?
(1) Ephedra (3) Cycas (2) Pinus (4) Ginko
64. Special type of root inhabited by microbes in cycas is called:
(1) Adventitious root (2) Microbial root
(3) N2 fixing root (4) Coralloid root
65. During metaphase mitosis chromosome:
(1) Undergo coiling 3) Under coiling
(2) Line up at the equator (4) Break and disintegrate
66. During cell division in apical meristem, the nuclear membrane appears in:
(1) Metaphase (3) Anaphase (2) Telophase (4) Cytokinesis
67. The site of protein synthesis is:
(1) At the nuclear membrane (2) At ribosomes
(3) Near microfilaments (4) Always at a golgi body
68. Which of the following is correctly matches an organelle with its function:
(1) Mitochondrion. . photosynthesis
(2) Nucleus cellular respiration
(3) Ribosome. manufacture of lipids
(4) Central vacuole. . storage
69. A cell has mitochondria, ribosomes, smooth and rough ER, and other parts. Based on this information, it could not be:
(1) A cell from a pine tree (2) A grasshopper cell
(3) A yeast (fungus) cell (4) A bacterium
70. Cell fractionation is the most appropriate procedure for preparing for study:
(1) Isolated cells which are normally found tightly attached to neighboring cells
(2) Cells without a functional cytoskeleton
(3) Isolated org anelles
(4) Bone and other similar cells which are situated within a mineral framework
71. The cell structure that is the site of ATP synthesis is:
(1) Centrioles (2) Lysosomes
- (3) Microtubule (4) Mitochondrion
72. The following cell structure contains powerful hydrolytic enzymes capable of digesting a wide range of materials:
(1) Centrioles (2) Lysosomes
(3) Microtubule (4) Mitochondrion
73. Short sugar chains attached to proteins are known as:
(1) Cholesterol (2) Glycoprotein
(3) Glycolipid (4) Oligosaccharides
74. Fat molecules attached to proteins are called:
(1) Cholesterol (2) Glycoprotein
(3) Glycolipid (4) Oligosaccharides
75. The cell structure that is the site of ribosomal RNA:
(1) Cilia (3) Chromatin
(2) Centrioles (4) Nucleolus
76. The first transgenic plant was:
(1) Tobacco (2) Pea
(3) Tamato (4) Cotton
77. The bacteria generally used for genetic engineering:
(1) Bacillus (2) Pseudomonas
(3) Clostridium (4) Agrobacterium
78. In recombinant DNA technology a plasmid vector is cleaved by:
(1) Modified DNA ligase
(2) A heated alkaline solution
(3) The same enzyme that cleave the donor DNA
(4) The different enzyme other than that cleave the donor DNA
79. A virus takes over the _______ of the host cell when it reproduces:
(1) Mitochondria (2) Nucleus
(3) Metabolic machinery (4) Respiratory pathway
80. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the fungi:
(1) They are all absorptive heterotrophs
(2) They have cell walls made of chitin
(3) Mitosis takes place within the nuclear membrane
(4) They are all motile
81. Infectious RNA particle without protein coat:
(1) Viroid (2) Virion (3) Virusoid (4) Prion
82. The black rust of wheat is a fungal disease caused by:
(1) Puccinia graminis tritici (2) Melampsora lini
(3) Albugo candida (4) Claviceps purpurea
83. The male gametophyte of a flowering plant is the:
(1) Pollen sac (2) Microspore
(3) Microspore mother cell (4) Pollen grain
84. Plants that produce only ovules or pollen are called:
(1) Monoecious (3) Dioecious
(2) Monogamous (4) Bigamous
85. During oxidative phosphorylation in mitochondria synthesis of ATP occurs due to:
(1) Oxidation of glucose by glycolysis
(2) Electrochemical proton gradient
(3) Oxidation of NADH to NAD
(4) Oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl Co—A
86. “Sex—linked genes” refer to genes:
(1) Present in a particular sex
(2) Controlling secondary sexual characters
(3) Controlling both primary and secondary sexual characters
(4) Present on the sex chromosomes
87. Cancer causing genes are called:
(1) Operons (3) Recons
(2) Oncogenes (4) Mutons
88. Copper is associated with which one of the following mitochondrial enzymes?
(1) Cytochrome oxidase (3) Catalase
(2) Succinic dehydrogenase (4) Acid phosphatase
89. Proteins that are used only outside the cell are synthesized:
(1) In the mitochondria
(2) On the rough endoplasmic reticulum
(3) On the smooth endoplasmic reticulum
(4) On free ribosomes
90. ‘A’ is an autosomal gene and is responsible for albino character. A male rat heterozygous for ‘a’ is crossed with a female rat of same genotype. How many of the Fl offspring will express ‘a’ phenotype (i.e., albino)?
(1) 100% (2) 50% (3) 25% (4) None of these
91. RNA molecules, capable of catalyzing a chemical
reaction such as self—splicing are known as:
(1) Isozymes (3) Ribosomes
(2) Ribozymes (4) Lysosomes
92. Bacterial resistance to antibiotics is a generic trait that
is carried in the bacteria cell in:
(1) Chromosome (3) Plasmid
(2) Intron (4) Centromere
93. Which enzyme catalyzes the unwinding of DNA helix
during replication?
(1) Primase (3) DNA—polymerase
(2) Topoisomerase (4) Helicase
94. The enzymes involved in interconversion of relaxed and super coiled forms of DNA molecules are called:
(1) DNA hgases (2) Topoisomerase
(3) Polymerases (4) Exontcleases
95. Which of the following amino acids has single codon?
(1) lsoleucine (3) Valine
(2) Tryptophaii (4) Arginine
96. Where is the enzyme that catalyzes peptide bonding located?
(1) Largersub—unitofthe ribosome
(2) Smaller sub—unit of the ribosome
(3) Leader region of the m—RNA
(4) T—RNA
97. Syntonemal complex helps in:
(1) Gamete formation
(2) Recombination during cell division
(3) Production of enzymes during cell division
(4) Chromosomal movement towards poles
98. The intervening sequence of ‘gene’ is known as:
(1) Cistron (3)intron
(2) Exon (4) Codon
99. Okazaki is famous for his studies on:
(1) DNA replication (2) Gene expression
(3) Somatic mutions (4)somatic hybridization
100. If a certain couple shows the probability of having only half of the sons haemophilic and only half of the daughters haemophilic the parents are likely to be:
(1) Haemophilic carrier mother and haemophilic father
(2) Hemophilia carrier mother and normal father
(3) Normal mother and haemophilic father
(4) Haemophilic mother and normal father
(1) Marginal (3) Axile (2) Parietal (4) Basal
12. A distinct monocot character shown by the flowers of liliaceae is:
(1) Hypogynous flower (2) Actinomorphic flower
(3) Trimerous flower (4) Bisexual flower
13. When a cell is fully turgid which one of the following is zero:
(1) Turgor Pressure (2) Wall pressure
(3) Diffusion pressure deficit (4) Osmotic pressure
14. The coleoptile in grass seedling is:
(1) Radicle (2) Plumule
(3) Cotyledon 4) Sheath around emerging leaf
15. One of these is polymorphic and digenetic:
(1) Noctiluca
(3) Plasmodium
(2) Leishmania (4) Trvpanosoma
16. One of the following is not a mammal:
(1) Anteater (3) Heloderma
(2) Echidna (4) Dolphin
17. Which of the following is not a correctly matched set:
(1) Flame cell-flatworm (2) Nematocyst-Coelenterata
(3) Segmentation-MolluSca (4) Pharyngeal gill slit-Chordata
18. Chief function of contractile vacuole is:
(1) Osmoregulation (3) Excretion
(2) Digestion (4) Respiration
19. Which one of the following sets of organs is of ectodermal origin in frog?
(1) Epidermis, mucous glands and optic vesicle
(2) Brain, aorta and thyroid gland
(3) Pharynx, spinal cord and blood cell
(4) Heart, cranial nerves and liver
20. Precocious metamorphosis can be induced in frog tadpole by treating with:
(1) Growth Hormone (GH)
(2) Adrenocortico Tropic Hormone (ACTH)
(3) Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)(4) Thyroxine Hormone (TH)
21. Which stage of Plasmodium is infective to man:
(1) Merozoite (2) Schizont
(3) Spotozoite (4) Ookinete
22. Body cavity ofyj is called:
(1) Hydrocoel (3) Coelom
(2) Haemocoel (4) Coelenteron
23. Syncytial epidermis is found in:
(1) Ascaris (3) Flatworm
(2) Earthworm (4) None of these
24. Anal cerci are found:
(1) Only in male Ascaris (2) Only in male cockroach
(3) Only in female cockroach (4) Both in male and female cockroach
25. Inheritance of ABO blood group is an example of:
(1) Multiple allelism (2) Dominance
(3) Incomplete dominance (4) Mutation
26. Which has sweet taste, but is not a sugar:
(1) Saccharine (2) Lactose
(3) Protein (4) Starch
27. BMR is regulated by:
(1) Adrenalin (2) Thyroxine
(3) Growth hormone (4) Insulin
28. Pancreas has:
(1) Only endocrine cells
(2) Only one type of cell, the same functioning both in an exocrine and endocrine
(3) Two types of cells—exocrine and endocrine
(4) Only exocrine cells
29. In the unfertilized egg, inactivated NMD kinase is made active only:
(1) When capacitation and contact between the gametes have been established
(2) After the penetration of the sperm head —into the vicinity of the egg plasma membrane
(3) When the second polar body of the egg has been discharged
(4) When the amphlimixis is over
30. Young fruits are green but develop brilliant shade of colour towards ripening because:
(1) Amount of sugar increases in them
(2) Amount of organic acids decreases in them
(3) Chloroplasts are degraded to carotenes and xanthophylls
(4) Of ageing
31. Which of the following is true for most genes:
(1) A gene is a segment of DNA that contains the instnjctions for making a particular protein
(2) A gene is a segment of DNA that contains the instructions for making a particular RNA
(3) A gene is a region of DNA that controls a discrete hereditary characteristic of an organism
(4) All of the above
32. The “Central Dogma” of protein synthesis can be summed up as follows:
(1) DNA — transcription —* RNA —* translation
(2) DNA —* translation —* RNA —> transcription
(3) DNA —f RNA — transcription —* translation
(4) DNA —* RNA — translation —* transcription
33. Telomeres are:
(1) Knots in the center of the chromosome that seem to tie the chromatids together
(2) Starting points for DNA replication
(3) Molecules that bring new nucleotides to the replicating DNA strand
(4) Sequences of nucleotides found at ends of chromosomes
34. Islets of Langerhans are found in:
(1) Australia (2) Pancreas
(3) Ovary (4) Liver
35. Corpus callosum is found in the brain of:
(1) Frog (2) Rabbit
(3) Cockroach (4) Snake
36. The specific function of liver is:
(1) Excretion (2) Digestion
(3) Histolysis (4) Glycogenesis and glycogenolysis
37. Antidiuretjc hormone (ADH) is:
(1) Gastrin (2) Pancreozymin
(3) Testosterone (4) Vasspressin
38. Pegging down in ground nut is the process of:
(1) Elongation of style
(2) Elongation of areal roots
(3) Development of Brace roots
(4) Pressing pegs in soil to support the plant
39. ‘Pusa Naveen’ is a variety of:
(1) Bottle gourd (2) Sponge gourd
(3) Bitter gourd (4) Musk-melon
40 The family of water melon is:
(1) Cruciferae (2) Malvaceae
(3) Leguminosae (4) Cucurbitaceous
41. Which among the following conditions are favourable 41. for cyclic photophosphorylation
(1) Aerobic condition only
(2) Aerobic and low light intensity
(3) Aerobic and optimum light
(4) Anaerobic and low light intensity
42. The number of carbon atom in the acceptor compound 42. of carbon—dioxide in C3 plants is:
(1)2 (2)3
(3)4 (4)5
43. Calvin cycle occurs in:
(1) Cytoplasm (2) Peroxisome
(3) Chloroplast (4) Mitochondria
44. The number of oxygen molecules released per light quanta during light reaction is:
(1) Quantum yield (2) Quantum requirement
(3) Quantasome (4) Photosynthetic yield
45. Genetic recombination takes place during:
(1) Prophase of meiotic division—I
(2) Metaphase of meiotic division—Il
(3) Prophase of melotic division—Il
(4) Metaphase of meiotic division—I
46. In CAM plants the initial carbondioxide acceptor is:
(1) Phosphoglyceric acid
(2) Phosphoenol pyruvic acid
(3) Ribulose 1,5 biphosphate
(4) Malic acid
47. Which among the following pigment is called as accessory pigments?
(1) Carotene (2) Xanthophyll
(3) Phycobilins (4) All the above
48. C4 pathway is shown by:
(1) Sugar cane (2) Sunflower
(3) Pea (4) Rice
49. The universal hydrogen acceptor is:
(1) NADP (2) ATP
(3) CO—A (4) FMN
50. Algae and other submerged plants in water float during day time and sink at night, because:
(1) They come upto enjoy some time
(2) They lose weight at night
(3) They become byont due to accumulation of 02 as a result of photosynthesis
51. The electron microscope has been particularly useful in studying bacteria, because:
(1) Electrons can penetrate tough bacterial cell walls
(2) Bacteria are so small
(3) Bacteria move so quickly they are hard to photograph
(4) With few organelles present, bacteria are distinguished by differences in individual
macromolecules
52. Which of the following clues would tell you whether a cell is prokaryotic or eukaryotic:
(1) The presence or absence of a rigid cell wall
(2) Whether or not the cell is partitioned by internal membranes
(3) The presence or absence of ribosomes
(4) Whether or not the cell carries out cellular metabolism
53. Which pigment is water soluble?
(1) Chlorophyll (3) Anthocyanin (2) Carotene (4) Xanthophyll
54. “Kranz Anatomy” is found in:
(1) Flower (2) Seed (3) Leaves (4) Stem
55. The family in which many plants are C4 type:
(1) Malvaceae (3) Crucifereae (2) Solanaceae (4) Gramineae
56. The geometrical device that helps to find out all the possible combination of male and female gametes is called:
(1) Punnete square (3) Mendal square
(2) Bateson square (4) Morgan square
57. Necrosis, or death of tissue particularly leaf tissue, is due to the deficiency of:
(1) N, K, S
(2) N, K, Mg and Fe
(3) Mn, Zn and Mo
(4) Ca, Mg, Cu and K
58. Somaclones are obtained by:
(1) Genetic engineering (2) Tissue culture
(3) Plant breeding (4) Irradiation
59. Which one of the following is correct? The enzyme peptidyl transferase is involved in::
(1) DNA replication (3) Genomic imprinting
(2) RNA transcription (4) Protein translation
60. When a heterozygous offspring is crossed with homozygous recessive parents, it is called:
(1) Test cross (2) Reciprocal cross (3) Monohybrid cross (4) Dihybrid cross
61. The process of removing stamens from the flower during hybridization is called:
(1) Caping (3) Crossing
(2) Selfing (4) Emasculation
62. Which of the followings is absent in the xylem of gymnosperms?
(1) Trachiecjs 3) Fibers (2) Parenchyma (4) Vessels
63. Which of the following is called living fossil?
(1) Ephedra (3) Cycas (2) Pinus (4) Ginko
64. Special type of root inhabited by microbes in cycas is called:
(1) Adventitious root (2) Microbial root
(3) N2 fixing root (4) Coralloid root
65. During metaphase mitosis chromosome:
(1) Undergo coiling 3) Under coiling
(2) Line up at the equator (4) Break and disintegrate
66. During cell division in apical meristem, the nuclear membrane appears in:
(1) Metaphase (3) Anaphase (2) Telophase (4) Cytokinesis
67. The site of protein synthesis is:
(1) At the nuclear membrane (2) At ribosomes
(3) Near microfilaments (4) Always at a golgi body
68. Which of the following is correctly matches an organelle with its function:
(1) Mitochondrion. . photosynthesis
(2) Nucleus cellular respiration
(3) Ribosome. manufacture of lipids
(4) Central vacuole. . storage
69. A cell has mitochondria, ribosomes, smooth and rough ER, and other parts. Based on this information, it could not be:
(1) A cell from a pine tree (2) A grasshopper cell
(3) A yeast (fungus) cell (4) A bacterium
70. Cell fractionation is the most appropriate procedure for preparing for study:
(1) Isolated cells which are normally found tightly attached to neighboring cells
(2) Cells without a functional cytoskeleton
(3) Isolated org anelles
(4) Bone and other similar cells which are situated within a mineral framework
71. The cell structure that is the site of ATP synthesis is:
(1) Centrioles (2) Lysosomes
- (3) Microtubule (4) Mitochondrion
72. The following cell structure contains powerful hydrolytic enzymes capable of digesting a wide range of materials:
(1) Centrioles (2) Lysosomes
(3) Microtubule (4) Mitochondrion
73. Short sugar chains attached to proteins are known as:
(1) Cholesterol (2) Glycoprotein
(3) Glycolipid (4) Oligosaccharides
74. Fat molecules attached to proteins are called:
(1) Cholesterol (2) Glycoprotein
(3) Glycolipid (4) Oligosaccharides
75. The cell structure that is the site of ribosomal RNA:
(1) Cilia (3) Chromatin
(2) Centrioles (4) Nucleolus
76. The first transgenic plant was:
(1) Tobacco (2) Pea
(3) Tamato (4) Cotton
77. The bacteria generally used for genetic engineering:
(1) Bacillus (2) Pseudomonas
(3) Clostridium (4) Agrobacterium
78. In recombinant DNA technology a plasmid vector is cleaved by:
(1) Modified DNA ligase
(2) A heated alkaline solution
(3) The same enzyme that cleave the donor DNA
(4) The different enzyme other than that cleave the donor DNA
79. A virus takes over the _______ of the host cell when it reproduces:
(1) Mitochondria (2) Nucleus
(3) Metabolic machinery (4) Respiratory pathway
80. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the fungi:
(1) They are all absorptive heterotrophs
(2) They have cell walls made of chitin
(3) Mitosis takes place within the nuclear membrane
(4) They are all motile
81. Infectious RNA particle without protein coat:
(1) Viroid (2) Virion (3) Virusoid (4) Prion
82. The black rust of wheat is a fungal disease caused by:
(1) Puccinia graminis tritici (2) Melampsora lini
(3) Albugo candida (4) Claviceps purpurea
83. The male gametophyte of a flowering plant is the:
(1) Pollen sac (2) Microspore
(3) Microspore mother cell (4) Pollen grain
84. Plants that produce only ovules or pollen are called:
(1) Monoecious (3) Dioecious
(2) Monogamous (4) Bigamous
85. During oxidative phosphorylation in mitochondria synthesis of ATP occurs due to:
(1) Oxidation of glucose by glycolysis
(2) Electrochemical proton gradient
(3) Oxidation of NADH to NAD
(4) Oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl Co—A
86. “Sex—linked genes” refer to genes:
(1) Present in a particular sex
(2) Controlling secondary sexual characters
(3) Controlling both primary and secondary sexual characters
(4) Present on the sex chromosomes
87. Cancer causing genes are called:
(1) Operons (3) Recons
(2) Oncogenes (4) Mutons
88. Copper is associated with which one of the following mitochondrial enzymes?
(1) Cytochrome oxidase (3) Catalase
(2) Succinic dehydrogenase (4) Acid phosphatase
89. Proteins that are used only outside the cell are synthesized:
(1) In the mitochondria
(2) On the rough endoplasmic reticulum
(3) On the smooth endoplasmic reticulum
(4) On free ribosomes
90. ‘A’ is an autosomal gene and is responsible for albino character. A male rat heterozygous for ‘a’ is crossed with a female rat of same genotype. How many of the Fl offspring will express ‘a’ phenotype (i.e., albino)?
(1) 100% (2) 50% (3) 25% (4) None of these
91. RNA molecules, capable of catalyzing a chemical
reaction such as self—splicing are known as:
(1) Isozymes (3) Ribosomes
(2) Ribozymes (4) Lysosomes
92. Bacterial resistance to antibiotics is a generic trait that
is carried in the bacteria cell in:
(1) Chromosome (3) Plasmid
(2) Intron (4) Centromere
93. Which enzyme catalyzes the unwinding of DNA helix
during replication?
(1) Primase (3) DNA—polymerase
(2) Topoisomerase (4) Helicase
94. The enzymes involved in interconversion of relaxed and super coiled forms of DNA molecules are called:
(1) DNA hgases (2) Topoisomerase
(3) Polymerases (4) Exontcleases
95. Which of the following amino acids has single codon?
(1) lsoleucine (3) Valine
(2) Tryptophaii (4) Arginine
96. Where is the enzyme that catalyzes peptide bonding located?
(1) Largersub—unitofthe ribosome
(2) Smaller sub—unit of the ribosome
(3) Leader region of the m—RNA
(4) T—RNA
97. Syntonemal complex helps in:
(1) Gamete formation
(2) Recombination during cell division
(3) Production of enzymes during cell division
(4) Chromosomal movement towards poles
98. The intervening sequence of ‘gene’ is known as:
(1) Cistron (3)intron
(2) Exon (4) Codon
99. Okazaki is famous for his studies on:
(1) DNA replication (2) Gene expression
(3) Somatic mutions (4)somatic hybridization
100. If a certain couple shows the probability of having only half of the sons haemophilic and only half of the daughters haemophilic the parents are likely to be:
(1) Haemophilic carrier mother and haemophilic father
(2) Hemophilia carrier mother and normal father
(3) Normal mother and haemophilic father
(4) Haemophilic mother and normal father
101. Initiation of polypeptide chain formation is always brought about at the site of a codon coding for an amino acid called:
(1) Isoleucine (3) Phenylalanine
(2) Cystein (4) Methionine
102. Which of the following is a mucopolysaccharide?
(1) Fibrinogen (3) Chitin
(2) Y— globulin (4) Hyaluronic acid
103. If the rate of translocation of food is slow then the rate of photosynthesis will:
(1) Remains the same (2) Becomes double
(3) Decrease (4) Increase
104. Digestion is:
(1) Conversion of large food particles into small food particles
(2) Conversion of small food particles into large food particles
(3) Conversion of food into protoplasm
(4) Conversion of non—diffusible food particles into diffusible food
105. The hardest part of a tooth is the:
(1) Dentine (2) Enamel
(3) Pulp (4)Dental tubules
106. Curdling of milk in the stomach is due to the action of:
(1) Pepsin (3) HC1
(2) Rennin (4) None of these
107. Gastric digestion takes place efficiently in:
(1) Acidic medium (2) Alkaline medium
(3) Neutral medium (4) Highly alkaline medium
108. Where is bile produced?
(1) In gall bladder (3) In liver
(2) In blood (4) In spleen
109. Largest gland in human body is:
(1) Liver (3) Pituitary
(2) Pancreas (4) Thyroid
110. A person having high fever may be breathing faster than normal. The reason for this faster breathing is due to:
(1) Additional need of 02 for germs
(2) Mental worry of the patient
(3) High temperature of body
(4) Loss of appetite
111. The tissue respiration refers to:
(1) Inspiration (2) External respiration
(3) Internal respiration (4) Expiration
112. During hibernation, the frog respires by:
(1) Lungs only
(2) Partly by lungs and partly by skin
(3) Both skin and lungs
(4) Skin only
113. The covering of lungs is called:
(1) Pericardium (3) Perichondrium
(2) Pleural membrane (4) Peritoneum
114. If the C02 concentration in the blood increases, the breathing shall:
(1) Increase (2) Decrease
(3) Affected (4) Stop
115. Anterior neuropore persists throughout the life in:
(1) Chick (2) Amphioxus
(3) Frog and Amphioxus (4) Chick, Amphioxus and frog
116. The grey crescent of frog’s embryo represents the future:
(1) Anterior side of the developing embryo
(2) Posterior side of the developing embryo
(3) Dorsal side of the developing embryo
(4) Ventral side of the developing embryo
117. Egg of eutherian mammals is:
(1) Centrolecithal (2) Telolecithal
(3) Macrolecithal (4) Microlecithal
118. Which of the following protein breakdown products of chick embryo is stored by its allantois?
(1) Ammonia (3) Urea
(2)Amino acid (4)Uric acid
119. Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) derives its name from the fact that it stimulates the growth of ovarian follicle in the female. In male, its target cell is:
(1) Germ cells (2) Sertoli cells
(3) Leydig cells (4) Pachytene stage germ cells
120. The endoderm of gastrula leads to the formation of:
(1) Skeleton (2) Muscles
(3) Thyroid and thymus (4) Sense receptors
(1) Isoleucine (3) Phenylalanine
(2) Cystein (4) Methionine
102. Which of the following is a mucopolysaccharide?
(1) Fibrinogen (3) Chitin
(2) Y— globulin (4) Hyaluronic acid
103. If the rate of translocation of food is slow then the rate of photosynthesis will:
(1) Remains the same (2) Becomes double
(3) Decrease (4) Increase
104. Digestion is:
(1) Conversion of large food particles into small food particles
(2) Conversion of small food particles into large food particles
(3) Conversion of food into protoplasm
(4) Conversion of non—diffusible food particles into diffusible food
105. The hardest part of a tooth is the:
(1) Dentine (2) Enamel
(3) Pulp (4)Dental tubules
106. Curdling of milk in the stomach is due to the action of:
(1) Pepsin (3) HC1
(2) Rennin (4) None of these
107. Gastric digestion takes place efficiently in:
(1) Acidic medium (2) Alkaline medium
(3) Neutral medium (4) Highly alkaline medium
108. Where is bile produced?
(1) In gall bladder (3) In liver
(2) In blood (4) In spleen
109. Largest gland in human body is:
(1) Liver (3) Pituitary
(2) Pancreas (4) Thyroid
110. A person having high fever may be breathing faster than normal. The reason for this faster breathing is due to:
(1) Additional need of 02 for germs
(2) Mental worry of the patient
(3) High temperature of body
(4) Loss of appetite
111. The tissue respiration refers to:
(1) Inspiration (2) External respiration
(3) Internal respiration (4) Expiration
112. During hibernation, the frog respires by:
(1) Lungs only
(2) Partly by lungs and partly by skin
(3) Both skin and lungs
(4) Skin only
113. The covering of lungs is called:
(1) Pericardium (3) Perichondrium
(2) Pleural membrane (4) Peritoneum
114. If the C02 concentration in the blood increases, the breathing shall:
(1) Increase (2) Decrease
(3) Affected (4) Stop
115. Anterior neuropore persists throughout the life in:
(1) Chick (2) Amphioxus
(3) Frog and Amphioxus (4) Chick, Amphioxus and frog
116. The grey crescent of frog’s embryo represents the future:
(1) Anterior side of the developing embryo
(2) Posterior side of the developing embryo
(3) Dorsal side of the developing embryo
(4) Ventral side of the developing embryo
117. Egg of eutherian mammals is:
(1) Centrolecithal (2) Telolecithal
(3) Macrolecithal (4) Microlecithal
118. Which of the following protein breakdown products of chick embryo is stored by its allantois?
(1) Ammonia (3) Urea
(2)Amino acid (4)Uric acid
119. Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) derives its name from the fact that it stimulates the growth of ovarian follicle in the female. In male, its target cell is:
(1) Germ cells (2) Sertoli cells
(3) Leydig cells (4) Pachytene stage germ cells
120. The endoderm of gastrula leads to the formation of:
(1) Skeleton (2) Muscles
(3) Thyroid and thymus (4) Sense receptors
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