Uttar pradesh public service commission now going to publish the
revised Exam calendar for Upcoming examination which will be held by UPPSC in
this year and in 2022. all those candidates who filled application form for Sammilit
Rajya Avar adhinasth seva bharti pariksha they are informed that Lok Seva ayog
will publish the exam dates of up lower subordinate preliminary examination and mains
examination 2022 according to official Notification of Combined state lower subordinate
service preliminary examination , Exam will be held on
UPPSC Lower PCS Pre exam 2022 : exam Dates January 2022
UPPSC Lower PCS Pre exam 2022 : exam Dates January 2022
UPPSC Lower Subordinate mains exam Date 2022 at various examination enter all over uttar pradesh. Mains examination of UP Lower PCS will be held on 2022.
upsssc lower 2 solution with reason 2022
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UPSSSC Lower 2 Question Paper in Hindi 2022
Download question paper and answer key UP Lower PCS examination 30 September and 1 October 2022-morning shift + Evening shift Pre Solved Paper with all SET Direct Download PDF Available
Download Leaked Question paper of Lower PCS 2022 on FacebookAll candidates who filled application form for up lower pcs they are advised to work on the preparation of Lower examination because every year more then 10 lakh candidates now appearing in the preliminary examination. Applicant are advised sol solve previous year question paper UPPSC PCS Exam how much you can for cracking this examination in first attempted. UpJob.in already published so many Solved Question Paper In Hindi and English medium. We are trying to publish Sample paper , Model Paper in image filed or in Test so you can use it without download any PDF. Such method will be alos very useful on mobile also .
UpJob.in brought question paper with answer key and solution
of General Study GS of UPPSC PCS pre Re Examination 2022
Following Questions were asked in General awareness /
general Knowledge GK Question paper 1 ( samanya adhyayan Prashn patra). We will
also publish more previous year exam solved question paper for Upcoming Lower
PCS examination.
General awareness important questions for Upcoming Lower PCS
examination As are following.
Last
10 Year UPPSC PCS Pre And Mains Examination Question Paper with Official Answer
key
UKPSC Lower Subordinate Pre Exam question paper Answer Key 2022
UKPSC Lower Subordinate Pre Exam question paper Answer Key 2022
1. Which of the following is a ‘ghost-town’?
(a) Kuidhara (b) Dhanushkodi (c) Lakhpat (d) Charkhari
2. Which of the following lakes of India is located in Jammu
and Kashmir?
(a) Phuljhar lake (b) Koleru lake (c) Anchar lake (d)
Hamirsar lake
3. Identify the correct sequence of the following states in
terms of fish production in descending order:
(a) Gujarat, Kerala, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu.
(b) Kerala, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu.
(c) Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat, Kerala, Tamil Nadu.
(d) Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat, Kerala.
4. Match List-I and List-il and select the correct answer
from the code given below:
List-I
|
List -II
|
||
Tribe
|
State
|
||
A.
|
Toda
|
1.
|
Sikkim
|
B.
|
Lepcha
|
2.
|
Meghalaya
|
C.
|
Birhoor
|
3.
|
Tamil Nadu
|
D.
|
Garo
|
4.
|
Jharkhand
|
Codes
A
|
B
|
C
|
D
|
||
a.
|
1.
|
3
|
2
|
4
|
4
|
b.
|
2.
|
3
|
1
|
4
|
2
|
c.
|
3.
|
2
|
3
|
1
|
1
|
d.
|
4.
|
4
|
2
|
1
|
3
|
5. According to the Census of India, 2011 the percentage
growth of population in the country during the period of 2001-2011 was:
(a) 31.34 (b) (c) 13.31 (d)
6. Which of the following is correctly matched?
Hot-springs
|
Location
|
|
(a)
|
Manikaran
|
Himachal Pradesh
|
(b)
|
Jwalamukhi
|
Jammu & Kashmir
|
(c)
|
Anhoni
|
Madhya Pradesh
|
(d)
|
Tapta Pani
|
Odisha
|
7. ‘Doodh-Ganga’ river is located in
(a) Jammu and Kashmir (b)
Himachal Pradesh
(c) Uttarakhand (d)
West Bengal
8. Which of the following soils of India has been formed due
to weathering of basaltic lava?
(a) Alluvial soils (c)
Red soils
(b) Laterite soils (d)
Regur soils
9. Which of the following canals has been taken out from
Damodar river?
(a) Sirhind Canal (b)
Edon Canal
(c)Bist Doab Canal (d)Eastern
Grey Canal
10. Which of the following is related to Right to Information Act, 2005?
(a) Lily Thomas v/s Union of India
(b) Nandini Sundar v/s State of Chhattisgarh
(c) Namit Sharma v/s Union of India
(d) None of the above
11. Which one of the following is not a part of Fundamental
Duties under Indian Constitution?
(a) -To defend the country and render national service.
(b) To value and preserve the rich. heritage of our
composite culture.
(c) To help in organizing -Village Panchayats.
(d) To safeguard public property and to abjure violence.
12. Match List-I and List-IT and select the correct answer
from the code given below:
List — I
|
List — II
|
||
(Lakes)
|
(Location)
|
||
A.
|
Ashtamudi
|
1.
|
Haryana
|
B.
|
Pulicat
|
2.
|
Kerala
|
C.
|
Roopkund
|
3.
|
Tamil Nadu
|
D.
|
Surajkund
|
4.
|
Uttarakhand
|
Codes
A
|
B
|
C
|
D
|
|
a.
|
3
|
2
|
1
|
4
|
b.
|
2
|
3
|
4
|
1
|
c.
|
4
|
2
|
3
|
1
|
d.
|
1
|
4
|
2
|
3
|
13. Consider the
following statements and select the correct answer from the code given below:
Assertion (A) : State Finance Commission is a constitutional
body.
Reason (R) : Union Finance Commission cannot recommend
financial assistance to panchayats.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation
of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
14. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution
provides that the Speaker shall have and exercise a casting vote in the case of
an equality of votes?
(a) Article 99 (b)
Article 103
(c) Article 100 (d) Article 102
15. Who can legislate on the subjects which are not included
in any of the lists of subjects given in the Constitution?
(a) Supreme Court (b)
Parliament
(c) State Legislature (d)
Regional Councils
16. In the absence of the President of India, if
Vice-President is not available, who of the following can act as the President?
(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(d) Atorney General of India
17. Read the following and select the correct answer from
the code given below:
Assertion (A) : The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)
is to be headed by a person who has been a former Chief Justice of India.
Reason (R) : The Chairperson of NHRC holds office for a term
of 5 years or till he attains the age of 70 years, whichever is earlier.
Codes
(a) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true.
(d) Both (A) and (R) are false.
18. Which .of the following Fundamental Rights under the
Constitution is guaranteed only to the citizens of India and not to foreigners
living in India?
(a) Equality before law
(b) Frcedom of speech and expression
(c) Protection of life and personal liberty
(d) Free practice of religion
19. Study the following statements and select the correct
answer from the code given below:
Assertion (A) : The State Election Commission is a
constitutional authority.
Reason (R) : Elections to rural local bodies are overseen by
the Election Commission of India.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation
of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are tme, but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(d) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
20. Which one of the following writs can be issued by a High
Court to secure liberty of the individual?
(a) Mandamus (b) Quo-warranto Prohibition
(c) Habeas Corpus (d)
21. Study the following statements and select the correct
answer from the code given below:
Assertion (A) : India has a written constitution.
Reason (R) : Growth of strong regional parties is an
indicator of regional aspirations.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation
of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
22. The Joint Sitting of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha under
Article 108 is summond by
(a) The President (b) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) The Prime Minister (d) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
23. The provision for the representation of Anglo-Indian
community in the
Lok Sabha has been made in the Constitution under:
(a) Article-331 (b) Article-221 (c) Article-121 (d) Article-139
24. Which one of the following cases outlined the basic
structure doctrine of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Gopalan v/s Madras State (b)
Golaknath v/s Punjab State
(c) Keshava Nand Bharti v/s Kerala
State (d) None of these
25. Under which one of the following Articles, the procedure
for removal of the President of India through the process of impeachment has
been laid down?
(a) Article-53 (b) Article-61 (c) Article-74 (d) Article- 13
26. Which of the following is not a federal feature of the
Indian Constitution?
(a) Distribution of power between Centre and States.
(b) Entirely written Constitution
(c) Single Citizenship (d)
Independent Judiciary
27. In which of the following States, the office of
Lokayukta was first established?
(a) Maharashtra (b)
Uttar Pradesh
(c) Bihar (d)
Odisha
28. By which Constitutional Amendment the number of Central
Ministers has been limited to 15% of the total number of members of the Lok
Sabha?
(a) 91st Amendment (b)
92nd Amendment
(c) 90th Amendment (d)
None of the above
29. The Right to Vote in India is a
(a) Fundamental Right (b)
Constitutional Right
(c) Natural Right (d)
Legal Right
30. Who amongst the following are not included in the
electoral college for the election of the President of India?
(a) Elected members of the House of the People.
(b) Elected members of the Council of States.
(c) Elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the
States.
(d) Elected members of the Legislative Councils of the
States.
31. The Indian Parliament consists of:
(a) Lok Sabha only (b)
Rajya Sabha only
(c) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabba only
(d) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and the President
32. The executive power of the Union vests in
(a) The Prime Minister (b)
The President
(c) The Council of Ministers (d)
The Parliament
33. Which amongst the following now decide the oil-prices in
India?
(a) Ministry of Finance (b)
Respective State Governments
(c) Ministry of Petroleum (d)
Oil Companies
34. Anushakti Vidyut Nigam Limited is a joint venture of the
Nuclear Power
Corporation of India and
(a) NMDC (b) NHPC (c)
BHEL (d) NTPC
35. Which of the following makes recommendation regarding
fixing of minimum support price for various crops?
(a) Indian Council of Agricultural Research
(b) NABARD
(c) Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices
(d) Indian Agricultural Research Institute
36. As per Census-201 1, the literacy rate of Uttar Pradesh
is
(a) 74.01% (b) 72.60% (c)
69.72% (d) 70.60%
37. Time of zero-hour in Parliament is:
(a) 9am to 10 am (b)
10 am to 11am
(c) 11 am to 12noon (d)
12 noon to 1.00 pm
38. In which of the following States a solar power plant of
4000 MW capacity is planned to be set-up?
(a) Gujarat (b)
Rajasthan (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Tamil Nadu
39. The ‘Nalanda-Project’ is a programme of the Ministry of:
(a) Culture (b)
Human Resource Development
(c) Minority Affairs (d)
External Affairs
40. Kandla is well known for:
(a) Ship breaking industry (b)
Cutting and polishing of diamonds
(c) Export processing zone (d)
Traditional art and craft centre
41. Helpline ‘Udyami’ is meant for:
(a) Micro, small and medium enterprises
(b) Large capital industries (c) Female entrepreneurs
(d) Farmers using technology in farming
42. 19th November is observed as the
(a) World Green Day (b)
World Anti-poverty Day
(c) World Toilet Day (d)
World Clean Water Day
43. Consider the following statements and select the correct
answer from the code given below:
Assertion (A) : Economic development requires a
multidimensional approach.
Reason (R) : The present Government of India is focussing
mainly on micro- economic issues.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation
of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
44. How many companies are included in BSE-GREENEX?
(a) 25 (b) 40 (c) 50
(d) 100
45. Consider the following in relation to causes of
urbanization and select the correct answer from the code given below:
1. High rate of emigration from rural to urban areas.
2. Increasing number of educational institutions in cities.
3. High rate of industrialization.
4. High standard of living in rural area.
Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
(b) 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
(c) 1, 2 and 4 are correct.
(d) 1, 3 and 4 are correct.
46. Which among the following is the largest mechanized mine
in India?
(a) Ratnagiri mine (b)
Jaipur mine
(c) Sundergarh mine (d)
Bailadila mine
47. The Gandhian Plan was expounded in 1944by:
(a) N.R. Sarkar (b)
Kasturi Bhai Lal Bhai
(c) Jai Prakash Narayan (d)
Shriman Narayan Agarwal
48. Consider the following statements and select the correct
answer from the code given below:
Assertion (A) : The present Government of Uttar Pradesh is
focussing on development of industry, infrastructure, energy generation etc.
Reason (R) : Heavy investment facilitates economic
development.
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation
of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
49. A new chapter on sustainable development and climate
change was
first introduced in the Economic Survey of:.
(a) 2004-05 (b) 2011-12 (c)
2012-13 (d) 2013-14
50. Which among the foilowing States has the main deposit of
tin ore?
(a) Assam (b)
Jammu & Kashmir
(c) Chhattisgarh (d)
West Bengal
51. What is the sex-ratio in India as per 2011 Census?
(a) 940 female per 1000 male (b)
950 female per 1000 male
(c) 960 female per 1000 male (d)
None of the above
52. Which among the following has launched ‘Virtual-Clusters’
web portal?
(a) Department of Information Technology
(b) Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
(c) Ministry of Human Resource Development
(d) Ministry of Commerce
53. What is the percentage of population of Uttar Pradesh to
India’s
population as per Census 2011?
(a) 14.2 (b)
15.5 (c) 16.16 (d) 18.2
54 Match List-I and List-IT and select the correct answer
from the code given below:
List — I
|
List — II
|
||
A.
|
W.T.O.
|
1.
|
To provide finance to correct equilibrium in balance of payments.
|
B.
|
I.M.F.
|
2.
|
Generally to forbid the use of quantitative restrictions
in trade.
|
C.
|
SAARC
|
3.
|
Sanction of soft loans.
|
D.
|
I.D.A.
|
4.
|
To promotes cooperation among South Asian Countries.
|
Codes
A
|
B
|
C
|
D
|
|
a.
|
1
|
2
|
3
|
4
|
b.
|
2
|
3
|
4
|
1
|
c.
|
2
|
1
|
4
|
3
|
d.
|
3
|
2
|
4
|
1
|
55. The temperature of the human body
(a) decreases in winters. (b)
increases in summers.
(c) neither decreases in winters nor increases in summers.
(d) increases in winters.
56. A person with vision defect ‘Myopia’ can see
(a) nearby objects clearly
(b) distant objects clearly
(c) nearby as well as objects distant clearly
d) neither nearby nor
distant objects clearly
57. The mirror used by the dentists to see the teeth of the
patients is
(a) convex (b)
concave
(c) plane (d)
none of the above
58. Which one of the following is a plant hormone?
(a) Insulin (c)
Oestrogen
(b) Thyroxin (d)
Cytokinin
59. The ‘xylem’ in plants is responsible mainly for
(a) Transportation of food (b)
Transportation of amino acid
(c) Transportation of water (d)
Transportation of oxygen
60. Which of the following is a correct statement?
(a) Energy flow in the biospheric ecosystem is
unidirectional.
(b) Energy flow in the biospheric ecosystem is cyclic.
(c) Relative loss of energy in natural ecosystem decreases
with increasing trophic levels.
(d) Species at progressively higher tropic levels appear to
be less efficient in using available energy.
61. Which one of the programmes aims for its by 2nd October
2019?
(a) Jan Dhan Yojana
(b) Beti Bachao Beti Padhao Scheme
(c) Janshrre Bima Yojana
(d) Swachch Bharat Mission
64. The most important factor contributing to the loss of
vulture population in India is
(a) Viral infection (b)
Bacterial infection
(c) Administering of pain killers to cattle
(d) Administering of estrogen injection to cattle
62. Which of the following species is the largest of the
‘toothed-whales’?
(a) Finback whale (b)
Blue whale
(c) Sperm whale (d)
Humpback whale
63. The largest amount of fresh water on our planet is in
(a) Rivers (b)
Lacks and streams
(c) Continental and mountain glaciers (Permanent Ice)
(d) Underground water of estrogen
65. The main pollutant in the smoke coming from cigarette is
(a) Carbon monoxide & Dioxicine
(b) Carbon monoxide and Nicotine
(c) Carbon monoxide and Benzene
(d) Dioxicine and Benzene
66. ‘Pyrheliometer’ is used for measuring:
(a) Sun spots (b)
Solar radiation
(c) Air temperature (d)
Temperature of plants
67. The problem of water pollution with Arsenic is maximum
in
(a) Haryana (b)
Rajasthan (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) West Bengal
68. Which of the following is not correct about ecosystem?
(a) It comprises both, abiotic and biotic components.
(b) It has its own productivity.
(c) It is a closed system.
(d) It is a natural resource system.
69. Which one of the following denotes water salinity
gradient?
(a) Thermoclifle (b) Halocine (c) Pycnoclifle (d) Chemodifle
70. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) First World
Climate Conference — 1979
(b) First Earth
Summit — Agenda-21
(c) Earth Summit Plus-5 —1997
(d) Carbon Trading — Montreal Protocol
71. Which one of the following is a marine national park?
(a) Bhitar-Kanika (b)
Sundarban
(c) Gahirmatha (d)
Gulf of Manna’
72. Which one of the following provides the cryogenic
indicator of climate change?
(a) Ice core (b) Fossilized
pollen (c) Tree ring growth (d) Evaporite deposits
73. Which of the following periods generally been considered
to be the ‘Little Ice Age’ ?
(a) 750 A.D. — 850 A.D. (b)
950 AD. — 1250 A.D.
(c) 1650 A.D. — 1870 A.D. (d)
8000 to 10,000 years B.P. (Before Present)
74. Which of the following is not related to the
astronomical theories of climate change?
(a) Eccentricity of earth’s orbit (b) Obliquity of earth’ s rotational axis
(c) Precession of equinoxes (d)
Solar irradiance
75. Which one of the following has been recognized as a
MegadiverSe Country?
(a) New Zealand (b) Australia (c) Nepal (d) Austria
76. Which of the following has the lowest mean net primary
productivity?
(a) Temperate forests (b)
Tropical forests
(c) Temperate grasslands (d)
Tropical savanna
77. Which one of the following concerns soil?
(a) Edaphic (c)
Biotic (b) Climatic (d)
Topography
78. Normal temperature of human body is 98.4 °F. Its
equivalent temperature in °C is
(a) 40.16 (c)
35.72 (b) 36.89 (d) 32.36
79. When doctor tells a person that he/she has been affected
with tetraplagia, it means that he/she is suffering from paralysis of
(a) right hand only (b)
left hand only
(c) his both legs only (D)
both hands and both legs
80. Which of the semiconductor?
(a) Plastic (c)
Wood (b) Aluminium (d) Germanium
81. Grains of Basmati rice get elongated on being cooked
because of higher content of:
(a) Lysine (b) Amylose (c)
Sugar (d) Oil
82. The disease caused due of iron is known as
(a) Colour-blindness (b)
Night-blindness (c) Anaemia (d) Tuberculosis
83. What amongst the following is responsible for formation
of stone in human kidney?
(a) Calcium acetate (b)
Calcium oxalate (c) Sodium acetate (d) Sodium Benzoate
84. If a human disease breaks out across a large region of
the world, what is it called?
(a) Pandemic (c)
Endemic (b) Epidemic (d) Epizootic
85. Which one of the following is a water borne disease?
(a) Small pox (b) Malaria (c)
Cholera (d) Tuberculosis
86. In which part quinine occurs
(a) Root (c)
Seed of the cinchona plant naturally?
(b) Fruit (d)
Bark
87. ‘Cloves’ are
(a) nodules of stem (b)
nodules of roots
(c) leaves (d)
dried flowers
88. How many calories are gained by drinking a glass of
water?
(a) Zero (b) 15 (c) 25
(d) 50
89. Which of the following Genetic-Engineering?
(a) Plastid (b)
Plasmid (c) Mitochoncfrja (d) Ribosome
90. Blue colour of the sky is due to
(a) Scattering of light
(b) Dispersion of light
(c) Interference of light
(d) Emission of more blue light as compared to other colours
by the sun
91. Which of the following is a stem?
(a) Turnip (b) Ginger (c)
Carrot (d) Sweet potato
92. Bauxite is the ore of:
(a) Iron (c) Copper
93. Bronze is an alloy of
(a) Copper and Tin (b)
Copper and Silver
(c) Copper and Zinc (d)
Copper and Lead
94. Which of the following countries has made it mandatory
to blend ethanol
with gasoline?
(a) China (b) U.K. (c)
Switzerland (d) Brazil
95. The blood pressure of an individual is 140 mm Hg. In
this statement ‘Hg’
refers to
(a) Hydrogen (b) Mercury (c)
Hygrometer (d) Heliograph
96. Who amongst the following tookover as the Chairman of
the Empowered Committee of State Finance Ministers on ‘GST’ in March, 2015?
(a) M. Ravi
(b) K. Chandrashekhar
(c) K.M. Mani
(d) Ram Gopal Yadav
97. Which of the following has become in March, 2015, the
first high court to announce setting up of dedicated commercial benches?
(a) Allahabad High Court
(b) Gujarat High Court
(c) Rajasthan High Court
(d) Delhi High Court
98. Who has written the book titled “Faces and Places” which
was released by the Vice President of India iii March, 2015?
(a) Jhumpa Lahiri (b)
Deepak Nayyar
(c) Chetan Bhagat (d)
Arvind Adiga
99. Which of the following is reported to have found in
March, 2015 biologically useful nitrogen on Mars?
(a) Mangalyaan (b) Mars
Express
(c) Phoenix Mars Lander (d)Curiosity
Rover
100. ‘Earth-Hour’ was observed in the year 2015 on
(a) 31 March (b)28 March (c) 27 March (d) 19 March
101. As reported in the journal “Tectonophysics” in March
2015, the world’s largest known asteroid impact zone is located in
(a) Africa (b) Australia (c) South America (d) North America
102. Which one of the following countries has participated
in operation “Storm of Resolve” being conducted in Yemen?
(a) Qatar (b) Kuwait (c)
Oman (d) Pakistan
103. The magnetic observatory which was inaugurated on 30th
March 2015 is
located at
(a) Allahabad (b) Gulmarg (c)
Shillong (d) Port Blair
104. What is the rank of India in the Open Government Index
2015 prepared by
the World Justice Project?
(a) 24th (b) 37th (c)
67th (d) 89th
105. Which one of the following was successfully launched by
India in
December 2014?
(a) GSLV-HI (b) GSLV-F07 (c)
GSLV-D5 (d) PSLV—C9
106. “Operation All out” of the Indian Army has been
launched in January
2015 against
(a) Naxiltes in Chhattisgarh (b)
Bodo Militants in Assam
(c) Militants in Jammu and Kashmir
(d) Cross border infiltration
107. “Neno plug” refers to:
(a) A small bullet (b) A small hearing aid
(c) A small rocket launcher (d) None of the above
108. The terrorist group ‘Al-Shabaab’ massacred 147 people
in April 2015 in Garissa University, which is located in
(a) Syria (b) Kenya (c)
Somalia (d) Iraq ,.
109. The U.P. Cabinet in. December, 2014 gave its permission
for conducting a feasibility study and preparing a detailed project report for
running metros in four cities. Which city amongst the following is not included
amongst these four?
(a) Agra (b) Varanasi (c) Meerut (d) Allahabad
110. Who amongst the following was not one of the recipients
of Prawasi
Bhartiya Samman 2015?
(a) Mala Mehta (b)
Ela Gandhi (c) Satya Nadella (d) Ashraf Palarkunnummat
111. Which one of the following states launched in February
2015 a “dolphinCensus” in the coastal eco-system and shorelines of the State?
(a) Gujarat (b) Karnataka (c) West Bengal (d) Odisha
112. Bhalchandra Nemade was selected in February 2015 for
which one of the
following awards?
(a) King Faisal Award (b)
Nayudamma Award
(c) India Harmony Award (d)
Gnanpith Award
113. In February 2015, for the first time, a trial of
driverless car was conducted simultaneously in four cities of:
(a) U.S.A. (b) Japan (c)
Gemiany (d) Great Britain
114. Who is the author of the book “Aatank Ke Saye Me”,
which was released by the Vice President of India in March, 2015?
(a) Shefalika Verma (b) Mannu Bhandari
(c) Namita Gokhale (d) Garima Sanjai
115. Which amongst the following countries has appointed
Justice SIC Sinha as its
Chief Justice in January, 2015?
(a) Surinam (b) Mauritius (c)
Nepal (d) Bangladesh
116. Which of the following states launched the Crime and
Criminal Tracking Network System (CCTNS) in February 2015?
(a) Punjab (b)
Gujarat
(c) Himachal Pradesh (d)
Uttar Pradesh
117. Sarga, Pratisarga, Vansa, Manvantara and
Vanshanucharita are the
indicators of
(a) Vedas (b) Puranas (c)
Upnishads (d) Sutras
Match List-I and List-IT and select the correct answer from
the code given below:
List — I
|
List — II
|
||
(Emperor)
|
(Titles)
|
||
A.
|
Ashoka
|
1.
|
Parakramank
|
B.
|
Samudragupta
|
2.
|
Priyadarsin
|
C.
|
Chandragupta-Il
|
3.
|
Kramaditya
|
D.
|
Skandgupta
|
4.
|
Vikramaditya
|
Codes
A
|
B
|
C
|
D
|
|
a.
|
1
|
2
|
3
|
4
|
b.
|
3
|
2
|
1
|
4
|
c.
|
2
|
1
|
4
|
3
|
d.
|
4
|
3
|
2
|
1
|
119. Who one of the following had not come to India with
Alexander?
(a) Nearchus (b) Onesicritus (c)
Deimachus (d) Aristobulus
120. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly
matched?
(a) Life of Hiuen — Hui-li Tsiang (b) The Natural — Ptolemy
History
(c) Historial — Pompeius Trogus Philippical
(d) The Histories — Herodotus
121. What was the theme of the 19th “National Youth
Festival” held in
January, 2015?
(a) Young India — Skilled India
(b) Youth for clean, green and progressive India
(c) Progressive India — Young India
(d) One India — Strong India
122. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly
matched?
(a) First Battle of Panipat — 1526
(b) Battle of Khanwa — 1527
(c) Battle of Ghagra — 1529
(d) Battle of Chanderi — 1530
123. Mughal Emperor Jahangir title ‘English-Khan’ to:
(a) Albuquerque (b)
Fransisco Almida (c) William Hawkins (d) Henry the Navigator
124. Which one of the following is the seventh part of the
State according to
Saptang Theory of State?
(a) Janapad (b) Durga
(c) Mitra (d) Kosha
125. In the early Rigvedic period, was considered to be the
valuable property?
(a) Land (b) Cow (c) Women (d) Water
126. Which of the following forts was not constructed in the
reign of Akbar?
(a) Red-Fort of Delhi (b) Agra Fort (c) Allahabad Fort (d)
Lahore Fort
127. Who were Polygars of South India?
(a) Ordinary Zamidars (b) Mahajans
(c) Territorial Administrative and Military Governors
(d) Newly enriched traders
128. What is the name of party founded by Saumyandra Nath
Tagore?
(a) Indian Bolshevik Party
(b) Revolutionary Communist Party
(c) Bolshevik Leninist Party
(d) Radical Democratic Party
129. Who out of the following performed a ritual called
‘Hiranya-Garbha’?
(a) Mayur Shannan (b)
Haiichandra (c) Danti durga (d) Harsha
130. The ‘Deepavali Declaration’ issued in the year 1929 was
related to the
(a) Communal problem (b)
Dominion status
(c) Labour leaders (d)
Untouchability
131. Who addressed Gandhiji as ‘one man boundary force’?
(a) Churchill (b) Attlee (c) Mountbatten (d) Simon
132. For which of the following Sessions, the Congress
elected its first woman
President?
(a) Calcutta Session 1917 (b)
Gaya Session 1922
(c) Allahabad Session 1921 (d)
Lucknow Session 1916
133. Who was the leader of 1857 struggle for freedom in
Lucknow?
(a) Zeenat Mahal (b) Nana Saheb (c) Hazrat Mahal (d) Tantya
Tope
134. Who was known by the nick-name “Lokhitvadi”?
(a) Gopal Han Deshmukh (b) Mahadev Govind Ranade
(c) Jyotiba Phule (d)
Bal Gangadhar Tilak
135. What was ‘Kamagatamaru’?
(a) An industrial centre (b) A harbour (c) A ship (d)
An army unit
136. The ‘Cabinet-Mission’ of 1946 was led by:
(a) Sir Pethick Lawrence (b)Lord Linlithgow
(c) Lord Wavell ( D) Sir John Simon
137. The Tarkesbwar movement of 1924 in Bengal was against
(a) Corruption in temples (b)
Violence
(c) Arrest of political leaders (d) Communalism
138. Which of the following is NOT responsible for increase
in the biodiversity of an ecosystem?
(a) Productivity of the ecosystem (b)
Intermediate-disturbance
(c) Age of the ecosystem (d) Less number of tropic levels
139. Which of the following is the oldest and deepest lake
of the world?
(a) Lake Baikal (b)
Lake Huron
(c) Victoria Lake (d)
Lake Winnipeg
140. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) World’s tallest — waterfall -Tugela Falls
(b) World’s largest — fresh water lake- Lake Superior
(c) World’s highest — navigable lake - Lake Titicaca
(d) World’s second deepest lake Lake- Tanganyika
141. Which of the following deserts located in the Southern
Hemisphere?
(a) Kalahari (b) Gobi (c) Chihuahuan (d) Sahara
142. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly
matched?
Industry Location
(a) Paper — Ontario
(b) Cotton Textiles — Detroit
(c) Chemical — Texas
(d) Motor car —
Nagoya
143. Which of the following countries has more than 30% of
its total area under
national parks?
(a) Israel (b) Bhutan (c)
Iceland (d) Gabon
144. Which of the following has been identified as a
‘biodiversity hot-spot’ in India?
(a) Sundarban (b) Western Ghats (c) Manas (d) Cherapunji
145. Which. of the following countries has been the largest
producer of copper
(2013)?
(a) Chile (b) China (c) Peru (d) U.S.A.
146. Arrange the following atmospheric zones in terms of the
distance from the earth’s surface in increasing order and select the correct
answer from the code given below:
1. Thermosphere 2. Troposphere
3. Stratosphere 4. Mesosphere
Codes:
(a) 1,3,4,2 (c) 3,4,2,1
(b) 2,3,1,4 (d)
2,3,4,1
147. Match List-I and List-Il and select the correct given
below answer from the code
List-I
|
List-II
|
||
A.
|
Golden Triangle
|
1.
|
1. Myanmar
|
B.
|
Bermuda Triangle
|
2.
|
2 Opium producing area of South East Asia
|
C.
|
Rice bowl of Far East
|
3.
|
3. China
|
D.
|
Red Basin
|
4.
|
4. North Atlantic Ocean
|
Codes
A
|
B
|
C
|
D
|
|
a.
|
3
|
2
|
4
|
1
|
b.
|
2
|
4
|
1
|
3
|
c.
|
4
|
3
|
2
|
1
|
d.
|
1
|
4
|
3
|
2
|
148. Which of the following is the most significant factor
in coral bleaching?
(a) Mining of coral rocks (b)
Outbreak of coral diseases
(c) Siltation of seawater (d)
Global warming
149. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
Dams Rivers
(a) Grand Coulee— Columbia
(b) Hoover— Tennessee
(c) Nurek- Vakhsh
(d) Cahora (Cobbora) Bassa — Zambezi
150. The name of which of the following countries closely
means “country of
40 tribes”?
(a) Kazakhstan (b) Kyrgyzstan (c) Tajikistan (d) Uzbekistan
Answer key / Answer Sheet / Question paper Solution
1
|
D
|
31
|
D
|
61
|
D
|
91
|
B
|
121
|
B
|
2
|
C
|
32
|
B
|
62
|
C
|
92
|
B
|
122
|
C
|
3
|
C
|
33
|
D
|
63
|
C
|
93
|
A
|
123
|
C
|
4
|
B
|
34
|
D
|
64
|
C
|
94
|
D
|
124
|
C
|
5
|
B
|
35
|
C
|
65
|
C*
|
95
|
B
|
125
|
B
|
6
|
B
|
36
|
C
|
66
|
B
|
96
|
C
|
126
|
A
|
7
|
A
|
37
|
D
|
67
|
D
|
97
|
D
|
127
|
C
|
8
|
B
|
38
|
B
|
68
|
C
|
98
|
B
|
128
|
B
|
9
|
B
|
39
|
C
|
69
|
B
|
99
|
D
|
129
|
C
|
10
|
C
|
40
|
C
|
70
|
D
|
100
|
B
|
130
|
B
|
11
|
C
|
41
|
A
|
71
|
D
|
101
|
B
|
131
|
C
|
12
|
B
|
42
|
C
|
72
|
A
|
102
|
D
|
132
|
A
|
13
|
C
|
43
|
*
|
73
|
C
|
103
|
D
|
133
|
C
|
14
|
C
|
44
|
A
|
74
|
D
|
104
|
B
|
134
|
A
|
15
|
B
|
45
|
A
|
75
|
B
|
105
|
A
|
135
|
C
|
16
|
A
|
46
|
D
|
76
|
C
|
106
|
B
|
136
|
A
|
17
|
C
|
47
|
D
|
77
|
A
|
107
|
B
|
137
|
A
|
18
|
A
|
48
|
A
|
78
|
B
|
108
|
B
|
138
|
D
|
19
|
D
|
49
|
B
|
79
|
D
|
109
|
D
|
139
|
A
|
20
|
C
|
50
|
C
|
80
|
D
|
110
|
B
|
140
|
A
|
21
|
B
|
51
|
A
|
81
|
B
|
111
|
D
|
141
|
A
|
22
|
A
|
52
|
B
|
82
|
C
|
112
|
D
|
142
|
B
|
23
|
A
|
53
|
C
|
83
|
B
|
113
|
D
|
143
|
C
|
24
|
C
|
54
|
C
|
84
|
B
|
114
|
D
|
144
|
B
|
25
|
B
|
55
|
C
|
85
|
C
|
115
|
D
|
145
|
A
|
26
|
C
|
56
|
A
|
86
|
D
|
116
|
C
|
146
|
D
|
27
|
A
|
57
|
B
|
87
|
D
|
117
|
B
|
147
|
B
|
28
|
A
|
58
|
D
|
88
|
A
|
118
|
C
|
148
|
D
|
29
|
D
|
59
|
C
|
89
|
B
|
119
|
C
|
149
|
B
|
30
|
D
|
60
|
A
|
90
|
A
|
120
|
B
|
150
|
B
|
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1 Comments
thanks for these details. I think this will be helpful for every candidate.so once again thanks..@
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